Work-Energy principle: Doubt regarding zero initial velocity assumption
I have a basic doubt from engineering mechanics. We have the work-energy principle stating that the work done by the forces acting on a partile is equal to the change in kinetic energy of that particle. However, the kinetic energy is a qudratic function of the velocity of the particle, and hence the change in kinetic energy for a given change in the velocity would depend on the initial velocity of the particle, before the work is done by the forces acting on it.